"Test Your Knowledge: MCQs on Research Methodology"

 

Test Your Knowledge: MCQs on Research Methodology

 

1. Research methodology is best defined as:

a. The systematic approach to collecting and analyzing data to answer a research question.

b. The process of generating new ideas.

c. The method of conducting experiments in a laboratory setting.

d. The process of publishing research findings.

Answer: a

2. A research hypothesis is:

a. A tentative explanation for an observed phenomenon.

b. A prediction of what will be found in a study.

c. A statement of fact.

d. A research question.

Answer: b

3. A null hypothesis is:

a. A prediction of what will be found in a study.

b. A statement of fact.

c. A hypothesis that is proven to be true.

d. A hypothesis that is tested but not supported by the data.

Answer: d

4. A research question is:

a. A tentative explanation for an observed phenomenon.

b. A prediction of what will be found in a study.

c. A statement of fact.

d. A question that guides the research.

Answer: d

5. In a study, the independent variable is:

a. The variable that is manipulated by the researcher.

b. The variable that is measured by the researcher.

c. The variable that is controlled by the researcher.

d. The variable that is affected by the dependent variable.

Answer: a

6. In a study, the dependent variable is:

a. The variable that is manipulated by the researcher.

b. The variable that is measured by the researcher.

c. The variable that is controlled by the researcher.

d. The variable that is affected by the independent variable.

Answer: d

7. A sample is:

a. A group of people who are similar to the population being studied.

b. The entire population being studied.

c. A subset of the population being studied.

d. A group of people who are not relevant to the study.

Answer: c

8. A population is:

a. A group of people who are similar to the sample being studied.

b. The entire group being studied.

c. A subset of the group being studied.

d. A group of people who are not relevant to the study.

Answer: b

9. A random sample is:

a. A sample in which every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected.

b. A sample in which the researcher selects the participants.

c. A sample in which only volunteers are used.

d. A sample in which the researcher selects people who are similar to the population being studied.

Answer: a

10. A non-random sample is:

a. A sample in which every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected.

b. A sample in which the researcher selects the participants.

c. A sample in which only volunteers are used.

d. A sample in which the researcher selects people who are similar to the population being studied.

Answer: b

11. The most important advantage of a random sample is:

a. It is less expensive to obtain.

b. It is more representative of the population being studied.

c. It is easier to obtain.

d. It is less time-consuming to obtain.

Answer: b

12. The most important disadvantage of a random sample is:

a. It is more expensive to obtain.

b. It is less representative of the population being studied.

c. It is harder to obtain.

d. It takes more time to obtain.

Answer: a

13. A quota sample is:

a. A sample in which every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected.

b. A sample in which the researcher selects the participants.

c. A sample in which only volunteers are used.

d. A sample in which the researcher selects people based on specific characteristics.

Answer: d

14. A convenience sample is:

a. A sample in which every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected.

b. A sample in which the researcher selects the participants.

c. A sample in which only volunteers are used.

d. A sample in which the researcher selects people who are readily available.

Answer: d

15. A snowball sample is:

a. A sample in which every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected.

b. A sample in which the researcher selects the participants.

c. A sample in which only volunteers are used.

d. A sample in which participants refer others to the study.

Answer: d

16. A pilot study is:

a. A small-scale version of the main study.

b. A study conducted by a pilot.

c. A study conducted in an airplane.

d. A study conducted by the military.

Answer: a

17. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good research question?

a. It is clear and concise.

b. It is complex and difficult to answer.

c. It is relevant to the research topic.

d. It is answerable through empirical research.

Answer: b

18. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good hypothesis?

a. It is testable.

b. It is specific.

c. It is clear and concise.

d. It is impossible to disprove.

Answer: d

19. Which of the following is a type of research design?

a. Experimental design

b. Descriptive design

c. Correlational design

d. All of the above

Answer: d

20. In an experimental design, the participants are:

a. Assigned to groups based on specific characteristics.

b. Randomly assigned to groups.

c. Allowed to choose their own group.

d. Not assigned to groups.

Answer: b

21. In a quasi-experimental design, the participants are:

a. Assigned to groups based on specific characteristics.

b. Randomly assigned to groups.

c. Allowed to choose their own group.

d. Not assigned to groups.

Answer: a

21. In a correlational design, the researcher is interested in:

a. The relationship between two or more variables.

b. The effect of one variable on another.

c. The differences between two or more groups.

d. The causal relationship between two variables.

Answer: a

22. In a descriptive design, the researcher is interested in:

a. The relationship between two or more variables.

b. The effect of one variable on another.

c. The differences between two or more groups.

d. Describing a phenomenon.

Answer: d

23. Which of the following is NOT a threat to internal validity?

a. Selection bias

b. History

c. Regression to the mean

d. Attrition

Answer: c

24. Which of the following is NOT a threat to external validity?

a. Selection bias

b. Sample size

c. Replication

d. Testing effects

Answer: d

25. Which of the following is a measure of central tendency?

a. Mean

b. Median

c. Mode

d. All of the above

Answer: d

26. Which of the following is a measure of variability?

a. Standard deviation

b. Range

c. Interquartile range

d. All of the above

Answer: d

27. A p-value of less than .05 is:

a. Statistically significant.

b. Not statistically significant.

c. A measure of effect size.

d. A measure of variability.

Answer: a

28. Which of the following is NOT a type of probability sampling?

a. Simple random sampling

b. Systematic sampling

c. Purposive sampling

d. Stratified sampling

Answer: c

29. In stratified sampling, the population is divided into:

a. Random groups.

b. Homogenous groups.

c. Heterogeneous groups.

d. Stratums based on specific characteristics.

Answer: d

30. Which of the following is NOT a method of data collection?

a. Surveys

b. Interviews

c. Literature reviews

d. Case studies

Answer: c

31. A Likert scale is:

a. A type of questionnaire.

b. A type of interview.

c. A type of case study.

d. A type of survey.

Answer: a

32. Which of the following is NOT a type of data analysis?

a. Descriptive statistics

b. Inferential statistics

c. Qualitative analysis

d. Randomized analysis

Answer: d

33. Which of the following is NOT a type of qualitative research?

a. Case study

b. Grounded theory

c. Ethnography

d. Experimental design

Answer: d

34. In qualitative research, data is often collected through: a. Surveys b. Experiments c. Interviews d. Statistical analysis

Answer: c

35. In quantitative research, data is often collected through:

a. Surveys

b. Experiments

c. Interviews

d. Ethnography

Answer: a

36. Which of the following is a type of non-parametric test?

a. T-test

b. ANOVA

c. Chi-square

d. Pearson correlation

Answer: c

37. Which of the following is NOT a measure of effect size?

a. R2

b. Cohen's d

c. Pearson correlation

d. Chi-square

Answer: d

38. The Institutional Review Board (IRB) is responsible for:

a. Approving research studies involving human subjects.

b. Conducting research studies involving human subjects.

c. Funding research studies involving human subjects.

d. None of the above.

Answer: a

39. Informed consent is:

a. Obtained from participants before they begin the study.

b. Not necessary for research studies.

c. Obtained after the study is complete.

d. Obtained from the researcher before the study begins.

Answer: a

40. Which of the following is NOT a type of research bias?

a. Confirmation bias

b. Sampling bias

c. Hawthorne effect

d. Measurement bias

Answer: c

41. The placebo effect occurs when:

a. Participants in a study are given a placebo and experience a positive effect.

b. Participants in a study are given a placebo and experience a negative effect.

c. The researcher experiences a positive effect from the study.

d. The researcher experiences a negative effect from the study.

Answer: a

42. The double-blind procedure is used to:

a. Eliminate experimenter bias.

b. Eliminate participant bias.

c. Eliminate measurement bias.

d. Eliminate sampling bias.

Answer: a

43. Which of the following is NOT a type of research ethics violation?

a. Fabrication of data

b. Plagiarism

c. Informed consent

d. Falsification of data

Answer: c

44. Which of the following is NOT a type of research design?

a. Correlational design

b. Case study design

c. Ethnographic design

d. Retrospective design

Answer: d

45. Which of the following is NOT a type of research design?

a. Correlational design

b. Case study design

c. Ethnographic design

d. Retrospective design

Answer: d

46. Which of the following is NOT a type of qualitative research design?

a. Grounded theory

b. Phenomenology

c. Case study

d. Experimental design

Answer: d

47. The main advantage of using a case study design is:

a. Generalizability

b. External validity

c. Richness of data

d. Control over variables

Answer: c

48. A researcher is conducting a study on the effects of caffeine on attention. The independent variable in this study is:

a. Attention

b. Caffeine

c. The participants

d. The dependent variable

Answer: b

49. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using secondary data?

a. It is more expensive than primary data.

 b. It may not be relevant to the research question.

c. It is not readily available.

d. It is difficult to analyze.

Answer: b

50. Which of the following is an advantage of using secondary data? 

a. It is more reliable than primary data. 

b. It is more valid than primary data. 

c. It is less biased than primary data. 

d. It is less expensive than primary data.

Answer: d

51. Which of the following is NOT a type of reliability? 

a. Test-retest reliability 

b. Internal consistency reliability 

c. Interrater reliability 

d. Construct validity

Answer: d

52. Which of the following is NOT a type of validity? 

a. Face validity 

b. Content validity 

c. Construct validity 

d. Test-retest reliability

Answer: d

52. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-experimental research design?

a. Descriptive research

b. Correlational research

c. Survey research

d. Experimental research

Answer: d

53. Which of the following is NOT a type of experimental research design?

a. Pretest-posttest design

b. Randomized control trial

c. Between-subjects design

d. Correlational design

Answer: d

54. A confounding variable is:

a. A variable that is held constant in an experiment.

b. A variable that is manipulated in an experiment.

c. A variable that is not controlled in an experiment.

d. A variable that affects the dependent variable but is not measured.

Answer: d

55. Which of the following is NOT an ethical consideration in research?

a. Informed consent

b. Anonymity

c. Confidentiality

d. Cost-effectiveness

Answer: d

56. Which of the following is NOT a type of data analysis method?

a. Descriptive statistics

b. Inferential statistics

c. Qualitative analysis

d. Experimental analysis

Answer: d

57. Which of the following is NOT a type of probability sampling?

a. Simple random sampling

b. Systematic sampling

c. Cluster sampling

d. Convenience sampling

Answer: d

58. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-probability sampling? 

a. Quota sampling 

b. Purposive sampling 

c. Snowball sampling 

d. Stratified sampling

Answer: d

59. The mode is the: 

a. Most frequently occurring score in a set of data. 

b. Average of a set of data. 

c. Midpoint of a set of data. 

d. Least frequently occurring score in a set of data.

Answer: a

60. What does JCR stand for? 

a. Journal Citation Reviews 

b. Journal Citation Reports 

c. Journal Citation Ratings 

d. Journal Citation Rankings

Answer: b

61. JCR is published by which company? 

a. Elsevier 

b. Springer 

c. Clarivate Analytics 

d. Wiley

Answer: c

62. What is the main purpose of JCR?

a. To evaluate the quality of research journals

b. To rank universities based on their research output

c. To provide information on the latest research trends

d. To showcase the top research articles published in the previous year

Answer: a

63. What is the Impact Factor?

a. The number of citations a journal receives in a given year

b. The number of articles published by a journal in a given year

c. The average number of citations per article for a journal in a given year

d. The ranking of a journal based on its citation record in a given year

Answer: c

64. What is the formula for calculating the Impact Factor?

a. Total citations/Total articles published

b. Total articles published/Total citations

c. Total citations/Total number of journals in the same field

d. Total articles published/Total number of journals in the same field

Answer: a

65. Which of the following is a high Impact Factor score?

a. 0.5

b. 1.5

c. 5.0

d. 10.0

Answer: d

66. How often is JCR updated?

a. Annually

b. Bi-annually

c. Quarterly

d. Monthly

Answer: a

67. What is the meaning of the quartile ranking in JCR?

a. It indicates the overall ranking of a journal in its field

b. It indicates the ranking of a journal based on its citation record in a given year

c. It indicates the percentage of articles in a journal that were cited in a given year

d. It indicates the ranking of a journal relative to other journals in the same field

Answer: d

68. How many quartiles are there in JCR?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

Answer: c

69. What is the meaning of a Q1 ranking in JCR?

a. The journal is ranked in the top 25% of journals in its field

b. The journal is ranked in the top 50% of journals in its field

c. The journal is ranked in the top 75% of journals in its field

d. The journal is ranked in the top 100% of journals in its field

Answer: a

70. What is the difference between the 2-year and 5-year Impact Factor?

a. The 2-year Impact Factor is based on the number of citations received in the previous 2 years, while the 5-year Impact Factor is based on the number of citations received in the previous 5 years. 

b. The 2-year Impact Factor is based on the number of articles published in the previous 2 years, while the 5-year Impact Factor is based on the number of articles published in the previous 5 years. 

c. The 2-year Impact Factor is based on the number of citations received in the current year, while the 5-year Impact Factor is based on the number of citations received in the previous 5 years.

d. The 2-year Impact Factor is calculated for journals in the top quartile, while the 5-year Impact Factor is calculated for journals in the bottom quartile.

Answer: a

71. What is a hypothesis in research?

a. A tentative explanation for a phenomenon

b. A research question

c. A summary of the research objectives

d. A conclusion drawn from research data

Answer: a

72. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good hypothesis?

a. It is overly complex

b. It is testable

c. It is not related to the research question

d. It is based on intuition

Answer: b

73. What is a problem statement in research?

a. A statement of the research objectives

b. A summary of the research methodology

c. A description of the research problem or issue

d. A hypothesis

Answer: c

74. What is the purpose of a problem statement?

a. To provide a summary of the research objectives

b. To provide a hypothesis for the research question

c. To provide a rationale for the research study

d. To provide a summary of the research findings

Answer: c

75. What is an objective in research?

a. A hypothesis

b. A research question

c. A statement of the research problem

d. A specific goal of the research study

Answer: d

76. What is the purpose of research objectives?

a. To provide a hypothesis for the research study

b. To provide a summary of the research findings

c. To provide a clear direction for the research study

d. To provide a rationale for the research question

Answer: c

77. Which of the following is a characteristic of good research objectives?

a. They are general and vague

b. They are not specific and measurable

c. They are realistic and achievable

d. They are not related to the research problem

Answer: c

78. Which of the following is an example of a research objective?

a. To conduct a literature review

b. To explore the attitudes of employees towards their work

c. To summarize the research findings

d. To provide a hypothesis for the research study

Answer: b

79. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good problem statement?

a. It is too narrow and specific

b. It is not related to the research question

c. It is clear and concise

d. It is overly complex

Answer: c

80. Which of the following is a characteristic of a poor problem statement?

a. It is clear and concise

b. It is too broad and general

c. It is related to the research question

d. It is specific and measurable

Answer: b